I"m reviewing material from a reduced div circuits course in preparation for the upper div class by redoing problems, and this is just one of them.

Does the make sense for the branch with the dependency current resource to have a voltage Va(t) across it? Wouldn"t the voltage measured throughout it be zero suspect the current source is ideal and also the wire has no resistance (since it"s not modeled in the problem.)

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Can someone explain why these dependent sources make sense, please?


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A current resource can absolutely have a voltage throughout it. If the voltage throughout a current source is zero, climate it is not moving or soaking up any power. However, if the voltage throughout the source is not zero, climate it is either sourcing or sinking power right into the rest of the circuit.


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Think of one extremely an easy circuit:

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simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab

There is clearly a voltage of 1V across R1, for this reason by Kirchhoff"s voltage law, there likewise must it is in a voltage of 1V throughout I1.

You are watching: Is there a voltage drop across a current source


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Yes. An ideal current source is a machine that always produces the given existing regardless that what voltage is applied throughout it.

A maker that always has 0 V across it is dubbed a 0 V voltage source, or, much less formally, a short circuit.


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